QuizMed

Single Best Answer (SBA) · Infertility: Assessment and Treatment

A 22-year-old subfertile woman has amenorrhoea, recent frequent headaches and bilateral nipple discharge. Investigations show an elevated serum prolactin. What is the most appropriate investigation?

Choose one answer.

Show answer and explanation

Answer: D. MRI of the head (pituitary)

Hyperprolactinaemia with headaches

Amenorrhoea, galactorrhoea and an elevated prolactin, together with recent headaches, strongly suggest a pituitary tumour (prolactinoma).

Why MRI of the head
  • MRI of the pituitary is the investigation of choice to image a pituitary adenoma - it best visualises soft tissue and the pituitary/hypothalamic region.
  • The headaches raise concern about a macroadenoma with possible mass effect, making imaging important.
Management context

Prolactinomas/hyperprolactinaemia are treated with a dopamine agonist (cabergoline or bromocriptine), which lowers prolactin, restores ovulation and shrinks the tumour.

Why D

MRI of the head best images a suspected pituitary tumour.

Why the others are wrong

CT is less sensitive than MRI for the pituitary; nipple-discharge cytology and a pituitary X-ray are not useful here; thyroid function (though hypothyroidism can raise prolactin) does not explain the headaches and would not image a tumour - MRI is the appropriate investigation.

Practise every Obstetrics & Gynaecology topic

This is a free sample. Sign up for the full bank of flashcards and exam-style questions on a spaced-repetition schedule, with 20 free stars a day.

More on Infertility: Assessment and Treatment

All free Obstetrics & Gynaecology MCQs