QuizMed

Single Best Answer (SBA) · Colorectal Cancer

A 65-year-old woman presents with left-sided lower abdominal pain, iron-deficiency anaemia and a palpable mass in the left iliac fossa. What is the most likely cause?

Apple-core annular stricture of colorectal carcinoma.

Choose one answer.

Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. Carcinoma of the sigmoid (left) colon

Left-sided colorectal carcinoma

Left-sided (descending/sigmoid) colon cancer commonly presents with left-sided abdominal pain, anaemia and a palpable mass, and with altered bowel habit and obstruction because the left colon has a narrower lumen and more solid stool.

Right versus left colon cancer
SideTypical presentation
Right (caecum/ascending)Iron-deficiency anaemia, vague pain, mass; obstruction is late (wide lumen, liquid stool)
Left (descending/sigmoid)Altered bowel habit, obstruction, PR bleeding, mass; annular 'apple-core' tumours
Why this matters
  • Recognising the side-specific pattern guides investigation; any change in bowel habit, PR bleeding or iron-deficiency anaemia in an older adult warrants colonic evaluation.

Practise every Gastroenterology and GI Surgery topic

This is a free sample. Sign up for the full bank of flashcards and exam-style questions on a spaced-repetition schedule, with 20 free stars a day.

More on Colorectal Cancer

All free Gastroenterology and GI Surgery MCQs